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acaosun

No, because the norm of a non-zero function can be 0. Equivalence classes!

ShanghaiCannon

no

Evanolott

I guess no(

seven

No. f(x) = 0 for 0<x<=1, f(0) = 1 also has norm 0.

jesshuifeng

probably no?

AL_

What is the intuition behind the definition of L2 norm?

jesshuifeng

What is this L2 norm calculation often used for?

eevee5

Why would we need to know the magnitude of a function?

hesuyouren

no

coffee

No

bokangw

Any examples of the application of L^2 norm in CG?

chenruis

No