I'm assuming the $a_{0}$ term here is what you get when you project $f$ onto $\cos(0) = 1$ (so it's just the integral of the function over its domain). However, don't we still need to multiply it by $1 / \pi$?
kmcrane
@dvernet: In this slide we assumed that the first basis function is the constant function $1/\pi$ (see a couple slides back). So this factor is already "baked in" to $a_0$. But anyway, sounds like you have the right ideas about how this all works.
I'm assuming the $a_{0}$ term here is what you get when you project $f$ onto $\cos(0) = 1$ (so it's just the integral of the function over its domain). However, don't we still need to multiply it by $1 / \pi$?
@dvernet: In this slide we assumed that the first basis function is the constant function $1/\pi$ (see a couple slides back). So this factor is already "baked in" to $a_0$. But anyway, sounds like you have the right ideas about how this all works.