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Just want to double check my understanding of everything. Is it true that maxarg(F) = g ie that to maximize F we'd pass in input g. I think this is true because nothing can be more aligned with g than itself but I want to double check.

edit: I want to take that back. I think that the maxarg wouldn't be defined because we could always pass in cg for some $$c \in \mathbb{N}$$ to get a larger output. That'd be an input perfectly aligned with g but scaled and that'd scale the output. ie `<<cg,g>> = c<g,g>


Yes that makes sense.