Do we ever approximate affine maps as linear maps using Taylor's Theorem? Or does that not make sense or is already handled by using homogeneous coordinates?
dchen2
I'm wary that you said all maps can be approximated as linear maps. Doesn't Taylor's theorem depend on differentiability?
Do we ever approximate affine maps as linear maps using Taylor's Theorem? Or does that not make sense or is already handled by using homogeneous coordinates?
I'm wary that you said all maps can be approximated as linear maps. Doesn't Taylor's theorem depend on differentiability?